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Mar 25 2011 08:06PM
phrazer (mr phrazer gmail com)
lets discuss the following situation:
I have like many others VPN access, lets say for example OpenVPN. We all
are connected in the range 10.0.x.x/23, the gateway is 10.0.0.1.
The first point, lets suppose, I have to all other clients within the
VPN access as if we would be in a LAN. For example, if they have port
139 open, I can access their network sharings.
The question is, would it be possible to perform a successful MITM
attack? I think arp spoofing is not possible because adressing in the
VPN performs without the MAC address. But I think attacks like DHCP or
ICMP redirect spoofing are possible.
What do you think? And if, why or why not? Do you have experience with this?
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