Of course, the interesting question is what happens if I buy a retail copy of Vista at a retail outlet in a state where the UCITA doesn't apply. If I do that, then absent any other explicit agreement at the time of sale the default contract of sale in the Uniform Commercial Code applies, not Microsoft's EULA. At this point there's an interesting question: having paid for and taken possession of an item, does the UCC permit me to bypass the seller's attempts to block legitimate use of that item? I've always been taught that it does, subject to the condition that you not unduly damage the seller's property in the process. I'm even clear under copyright law, since section 1201 explicitly permits copies essential to the normal use of the program so I don't need a license from MS to make those copies. It'd be interesting to see this logic litigated.

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